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Networking | MCQ Networking | Set 14

Q.1.The main difference between TCP and UDP is
a.UDP is connection oriented where as TCP is datagram service
b.TCP is an Internet protocol where as UDP is an ATM protocol
c.UDP is a datagram where as TCP is a connection oriented service
d.All of the above
Answer:c

Q.2.What operates in the Data Link and the Network layer?
a. NIC
b. Bridge
c. Brouter
d. Router
Answer: c

Q.3. What is the name of the computer based EMMS that provides a common forum where users can check in at their convenience, post messages, actively exchange ideas and participate in ongoing discussions?
a. E-mail
b. Bulletin board system (BBS)
c. Teleconferencing
d. Videoconferencing
Answer: b

Q.4.Which of the following statement is incorrect? 
a. The CCITT Recommendation X.25 specifies three layers of communication: physical, link and network
b. The second layer of communication is the data-link layer
c. Errors in the physical layer can be detected by the data link layer
d. The fourth layer, in reference to the OSI model, is the session layer
Answer: d

Q.5.Devices on one network can communicate with devices on another network via a
a. file server
b. utility server
c. printer server
d. gateway
Answer: d

Q.6. A hard copy would be prepared on a
a. typewriter terminal.
b. line printer.
c. plotter
d. All of the above.
Answer: d

Q.7. Which of the following device copies electrical signals from one Ethernet to another?
a. bridge
b. repeater
c. hub
d. passive hub
Answer: b

Q.8. Stephanie is in charge of a small network and wants to make it simple but secure. The users want to have full control over their data and still be able to share data with the rest of the office. The networking knowledge of the office staff is basic. Which network(s) would be the best for Stephanie to set up?
a. Peer-to-peer
b. Master domain
c. Server-based
d.WAN
Answer: c

Q.9.When UPC is used, the price of the item is located ?
a. on the item
b. on the item and on the shelf
c. in computer storage
d. on the shelf and in computer storage
Answer: d

Q.10. Error control is needed at the transport layer because of potential errors occurring _____.
a. from transmission line noise
b. in routers
c. from out-of-sequence delivery
d. from packet losses
Answer: b

Q.11. Which of the following is not a standard synchronous communication protocol?
a. SDLC
b. SMTP
c. SLIP
d. PAS
Answer: d

Q.12. The network layer, in reference to the OSI model, provide
a. data link procedures that provide for the exchange of data via frames that can be sent and received
b. the interface between the X.25 network and packet mode device
c. the virtual circuit interface to packet-switched service
d. All of the above
Answer: c

Q.13. In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by:
a. network layer
b. data link layer
c. transport layer
d. session layer
Answer: a

Q.14. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
a. narrowband channels
b. simplex lines
c. full-duplex lines
d. mixed band channels
Answer: c

Q.15. What is the first octet range for a class B IP address?
a. 128 - 255
b. 1 - 127
c. 192 - 223
d. 128 - 191
Answer: d

Q.16. If communication software can be called the "traffic cop" of a micro communication system, then what should the modem be called?
a. Park
b. Bridge
c. Interface
d. Link
Answer: b

Q.17. Which of the following specifies the network address and host address of the computer?
a. The IP address
b. The TCP address
c. The subnet mask
d. controller
Answer: a

Q.18. For connecting modem, a computer must be equipped with a port that conforms to the RS-232 standard of the Electronic Industries Association of America. What do the letters 'RS' stand for?
a. Recognised standard
b. Random sequence
c. Recommended standard
d. Registered source
Answer: c

Q.19. A network that requires human intervention of route signals is called a
a. bus network
b. ring network
c. star network
d. T-switched network
Answer: d

Q.20.What is the port number for POP3?
a. 110
b. 90
c. 80
d. 49
Answer: a


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Bank Examination | Syndicate Bank Probationary Officer Exam Paper | Bank PO Exam Paper | Previous paper of Syndicate Bank PO Exam | General Awareness For Bank

Syndicate Bank PO Held on: 23.5.2010 (General Awareness)


1. What is the full form of' ULIP', the term which was in the news recently?
 1) Universal Life & Investment Plan
 2) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
 3) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
 4) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
 5) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
Ans: 1 (5)

2. In one of his speeches Pranab Mukherjee said that the Govt had no plans to dilute the roles of market regulators. This means the role of which of the following will not be diluted?
1) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
2) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
3) Federation of Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI)
4) Bureau of Indian Standards
5) Securities & Exchange Board of' India (SEBI)
Ans: 2 (5)

3. As per the news published in some major financial news papers, the Maharashtra Govt is planning to introduce "Green Tax" on vehicles. What is the purpose of Green Tax?
1) It has been introduced with the aim of discouraging high consumption of petroleum products.
2) It is a tax levied by the Govt in place of VAT as VAT is not very profitable for State Govts.
3) It is just like a toll tax which will be charged from all the vehicles whenever they enter green
areas of a city like hospitals, schools, and old-age homes.
4) This is a tax levied on big commercial vehicles only with the aim of prohibiting them from
entering residential areas and non-commercial areas.
5) None of these
Ans: 3 (5)

4. Very often we read in newspapers about 3G or Third Generation Technology. This is a set of standards used by which of the following?'
1) To combat climatic changes
2) Production of nuclear energy
3) Film production
4) Mobile telecommunications
5) All of these
Ans: 4 (4)

5. Which of the following companies is NOT in the field of insurance business?
1) ICICI Prudential
2) Bajaj Allianz
3) Tata AIG
4) Aegon Religare
5) Royal Orchid
Ans: 5 (5)

6. Many times we read that a corporate entity is hi the process of raising its capital base. Why is a company required to raise money to strengthen its capital base?
(A) To finance its expansion plans
(B) To finance its diversification plans
(C) To repay its loans and borrowings
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A & B
5) All A, B & C
Ans: 6 (1)

7. Many times we read in newspapers that a company is planning to bring a public issue. What does it mean?
(A) Shares of the company will be issued only through, public sector organisations like
banks/Central financial institutions etc.
(B) Shares of the company will be issued to general public only through primary market.
(C) This means some stakeholders/promoters are willing to leave the company. Hence they wish
to sell their stock to the general public.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) AII A, B & C
5) None of these
Ans: 7 (2)

8. Whenever some people wish to enter into the business world, it is a must for them to approach a bank. What services do banks provide them in this regard?
(A) Banks act as payment agents by operating current accounts, paying cheques and receiving
payments for them.
(B) Maintaining account books for them for their day-to-day activities so that they are not
required to appoint account/finance personnel on a regular basis.
(C) Lending money by way of overdraft, instalment loan, credit or advance for business
activities
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only A & C
5) All of these
Ans: 8 (4)

9. As we all have noticed, banks these days are giving more emphasis on "Branchless Banking".What does this really mean?
(A) Banks will not have many branches as used to be in the good old days. Instead, the number
of branches will be restricted and will conduct only a specified core business.
(B) Banks will launch/operate many delivery channels like ATMs, Mobile Banking/Internet
Banking etc. so that people are not required to visit a branch for their usual banking needs.
(C) This means banks will issue only debit or credit cards for all types of day-to-day financial
transactions. Cheques/cash payments will not be allowed.
Ans: 9 (5)

10. As per the news published in various financial newspapers, Maruti Suzuki has no immediate plans to enter into "low-cost segment". This means
(A) Maruti-Suzuki will not reduce the price of its various products, as is being done by some
other manufacturers.
(B) Maruti-Suzuki does not want to produce a 'Nano"- like low-cost car in the near future.
(C) Maruti-Suzuki wants to retain its existing position Of luxury car makers and will not enter
into the area of makers of cars for the general public.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) AII A, B & C
5) None of these
Ans: 10 (2)

11. Which of the following is NOT a function of a bank?
1) Providing project finance
2) Selling Mutual Funds
3) Deciding policy rates like CRR, Repo Rate/SLR etc
4) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers
5) All of these are functions of a bank
Ans: 11 (3)
12. Which of the following is a form of "Small Savings Bank" popular among the poor or children?
1) Core Banking
2) Credit Banking
3) Debit Card
4) Merchant Banking
5) Piggy Banking
Ans: 12 (5)

13. As published in various newspapers, India and European Union are trying to finalize a free trade pact. How will this help India and EU?
(A) Both the parties will be able to export-import goods without tariffs, quotas and preferences
on most of the goods and services traded between them.
(B) The European Union will have to accept all payments in rupees only whereas India will
accept all payments for its exports in euros only, The dollar will have no role in this business.
(C) Both parties will have to decide the total value of trade between them in advance and will be bound to obey the commitment made thus.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Ail A, B & C
5) None of these
Ans: 13 (1)

14. The G-20 Summit in June 2010 is scheduled to be held at which of the following places?
1) London
2) Washington
3) Tokyo
4) Paris
5) Toronto
Ans: 14 (5)

15. As we all know, the Govt of India has initiated several projects/schemes for revival and recharging of water bodies/lakes etc. What is meant by recharging of water
bodies?

(A) Recharge in fact is deep drainage of water bodies so that water starts moving downwards
from the surface.
(B) Recharge is nothing but digging new wells and lakes so that more water is available for use.
(C) Recharging means levy of a tax on use of ground water for private purposes. This is done in
addition to the usual tax that civic bodies collect on the usual water supply.
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) AIIA, B & C
5) None of these
Ans: 15 (2)

16. As per the news published in various newspapers, China had to face its first "Trade Deficit" in six years. This means China
1) did not earn as much from its exports as it had to pay for its imports.
2) earned much more than its expectations on its exports and, paid very less on imports.
3) has decided to stop imports and exports for the time being as it is producing just enough for-its
consumption.
4) has failed to keep its commitment to supply (export) goods as promised to various countries.
The result is it may have to devalue its currency (Yuan) as it has lost its credibility in the market.
5) None of these
Ans: 16 (1)

17. Several public sector organizations like ONGC, SAIL and NTPC received 'Scope Award.'
The award is given for which of the following?

1) Earning the highest profit amongst all PSUs
2) Creating the maximum number of jobs in a year
3) Donating the maximum amount in Pradhan Mantri Rahat Kosh in a year
4) Cutting down expenditure by 50% or more in a year to wipe out losses made in the previous
year
5) Best Corporate Governance
Ans: 17 (5)

18. Iron-ore is found in which of the following states in India?
1) Punjab
2) Rajasthan
3) Orissa
4) Jammu & Kashmir
5) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: 18 (3)

19. Which of the following countries is in a deep crisis these days and is struggling to finance its budget deficit and govt debt?
1) Russia
2) Greece
3) Britain
4) USA
5) None of these
Ans: 19 (2)

20. As per the budget documents placed in the Parliament in February 2010, what are the challenges India is facing on its economic front?

(A) To quickly revert to the high GDP growth path of 9%
(B) Making development more inclusive
(C) To strengthen the governmental system and the process of governance at different levels
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) All A, B & C
5) None of these
Ans: 20 (4)


21. Prabha Rao was the. Governor of which of the following states immediately prior to her death?
1) Rajasthan
2) Himachal Pradesh
3) Maharashtra
4) Goa
5) None of these
Ans: 21 (1)

22. Who amongst the following is NOT a famous Lawn Tennis player?
1) Cara Black
2) Mike Bryan
3) Denis Ndiso
4) Serena Williams
5) Leander Paes
Ans: 22 (3)

23. Dr. K. Radhakrishnan, whose name was in the news recently, is the Chairman of
1) Indian Space Research Organisation
2) Atomic Energy Commission
3) Department of lnformation Technology
4) Unique Identification Authority of India
5) None of these
Ans: 23 (1)

24. Which of the following awards is given by the Govt of Madhya Pradesh?
1) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
2) Jawaharlal Nehru Award
3) Shikhar Sarnman
4) Pravasi Bhartiya Samman
5) None of these
Ans: 24 (3)

25. Which of the following terms is NOT used in Cricket?
1) Ashes
2) Backfoot shot
3) Smash
4) Crease
5) All are used in cricket
Ans: 25 (3)

26. Which of the following cups /trophies is NOT given for excellence in the game of Badminton?
1) Uber Cup
2) Thomas Cup
3) Syed Modi Memorial Trophy
4) Aros Junior Cup
5) Merdeka Cup
Ans: 26 (5)

27. The Ministerial level meeting of the BASIC Group of countries was held in New Delhi in January 2010. Which of the following is NOT a member of the BASIC Group?
1) Brazil
2) South Africa
3) Russia
4) China
5) India
Ans: 27 (3)

28. Which of the following Bills recently approved in the Union Cabinet will help in better health services in the country?
1) Right to Better Health Services Bill
2) National Health Care Bill
3) Clinical Establishments (Registration & Regulation) Bill
4) Essential Services Bill
5) None of these
Ans: 28 (3

29. Who amongst the following is a Padmashri Award winner recently?
1) Chanda Kochhar
2) Kumar Mangalam Birla
3) Saif Ali Khan
4) Harsh Pati Singhania
5) None of these
Ans: 29 (3)

30. Who amongst the following is NOT a famous author?
1) VS Naipaul
2) Leander Paes
3) Anita Desai
4) Kiran Desai
5) Chetan Bhagat
Ans: 30 (2)

31. Ivo Josipovic, whose name was in the news recently, is the
1) Prime Minister of Croatia
2) President of Croatia
3) President of Barbados
4) Prime Minister of Bolivia
5) None of these
Ans: 31 (2)

32. Priyanka Chopra was given a National Award at the 56th National Awards for her acting for which of the following films?
1) Love Story 2050
2) What's your Rashee
3) Kaminey
4) Fashion
5) None of these
Ans: 32 (4

33. Roger Federer is a famous
1) Film actor
2) Author
3) Lawn Tennis Player
4) Cricketer
5) None of these
Ans: 33 (3)
34. Who amongst the following was awarded the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award recently?
1) VK Moorthy
2) Madhur Bhandarkar
3) Mahesh Bhatt
4) Rekha
5) Hema Malini
Ans: 34 (1)

35. Lee Myung-bak, who was the Chief Guest at the 61st Republic Day Function of India, is the
1) President of South Korea
2) Prime Minister of South Korea
3) President of Vietnam
4) Prime Minister of Vietnam
5) None of these
Ans: 35 (1)

36. The late Jyoti Basu was associated with which of the following political parties?
1) BJP
2) CPI (M)
3) Congress
4) Samajwadi Party
5) None of these
Ans: 36 (2)

37. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India is a scheme to improve the performance of the agricultural sector?
1) National Horticulture Mission
2) Pulse Polio Abhiyan
3) Old Age Pension Scheme
4) Bharat Nirman Yojana
5) None of these
Ans: 37 (1)

38. 'LBW' is a term related to the game of.
1) Badminton
2) Cricket
3) Hockey
4) Football
5) None of these
Ans: 38 (2)

39. "Saraswati Samman" is an award given for excellence in the field of
1) Sports
2) Social Service
3) Literature
4) Science & Technology
5) None of these
Ans: 39 (3)
 
40. 'Heavy Water' is used in which of the following fields?
1) Thermal Power
2) Cement
3) Iron & Steel
4) Nuclear Power
5) None of these
Ans: 40 (4)

41. Which of the following is a Horticulture Crop?
1) Paddy
2) Wheat
3) Mango
4) Bajra
5) None of these
Ans: 41 (3)

42. Dr Amartya Sen is a famous
1) Physicist
2) Chemical Engineer
3) Psychologist
4) Economist
5) None of these
Ans: 42 (4)

43. Which of the following nations is considered the originator of the concept of Micro Finance?
1) India
2) Bangladesh
3) South Africa
4) USA
5) None of these
Ans: 43 (2)

44. India's first transgenic crop was
1) Potato
2) Brinjal
3) Sugarcane
4) Bt. cotton
5) None of these
Ans: 44 (4)

45. White Tiger is a book written by
1) RK Narayan
2) Shobhaa De
3) Khushwant Singh
4) Arundhati Roy
5) Aravind Adiga
Ans: 45 (5)

46. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given for excellence in the field of
1) Literature
2) Music
3) Sports
4) Science & Technology
5) None of these
Ans: 46 (4)

47. At present Dr. D Subbarao is the
1) Governor of Orissa
2) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
3) Chairman of the FICCI
4) India's Representative in lMF
5) None of these
Ans: 47 (5)


48. Banks borrow money from the RBI on which of the following rates?
1) Bank rate
2) CRR
3) SLR
4) Reverse Repo Rate
5) Repo Rate
Ans: 48 (5)

49. Usain Bolt is a famous
1) Cricket player
2) Athlete
3) Badminton Player
4) Footballer
5) None of these
Ans: 49 (2)

50. Govt normally does not announce the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of
1) Wheat
2) Paddy
3) Sugarcane
4) Jure
5) All of these
Ans: 50 (4)

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Networking | MCQ Networking | Set 13

Q.1.What protocol is used between E-Mail servers?
a.FTP
b.SMTP
c.SNMP
d.POP3
Answer:b

Q.2. If you configure the TCP/IP address and other TCP/IP parameters manually, you can always verify the configuration through which of the following? Select the best answer?
a. Network Properties dialog box
b. Server Services dialog box
c. DHCPINFO command-line utility
d. Advanced Properties tab of TCP/ IP Info
Answer: a

Q.3. In a PC to telephone hookup for long distance communication, modem is connected between the telephone line and
a. PC
b. synchronous port
c. crossover cable
d. asynchronous port
Answer: d

Q.4. Which of the following communications service provides message preparation and transmission facilities? 
a. Teletex
b. Teletext
c. x400
d. Fax
Answer: a

Q.5. Four bits are used for packet sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 15
d. 16
Answer: c

Q.6. In a synchronous modem, the receive equalizer is known as
a. adaptive equalizer.
b. impairment equalizer.
c. statistical equalizer.
d. compromise equalizer.
Answer: a

Q.7. Alex is required to provide information on how many people are using the network at any one time. Which network will enable him to do so?
a. Server-based
b. Token-Ring
c. Ethernet
d. Star
Answer: a

Q.8. Now-a-days computers all over the world can talk to each other. Which is one of the special accessories essential for this purpose?
a. Keyboard
b. Modem
c. Scanner
d.Fax
Answer: b

Q.9. To make possible the efficient on-line servicing of many teleprocessing system users on large computer systems, designers are developing?
a. communication systems
b. multiprogramming systems
c. virtual storage systems
d. All of the above
Answer: d

Q.10. Which of the following best describes the scopes on each DHCP server, in the absence of configuration problems with DHCP addresses, if you use multiple DHCP servers in your environment?
a. Unique to that subnet only
b. For different subnets
c. For no more than two subnets
d. For no subnets
Answer: b

Q.11. Which of the following provides a storage mechanism for incoming mail but does not allow a user to download messages selectively?
a. SMTP
b. DHCP
c. IMAP
d. POP3
Answer: d

Q.12. A 4 KHz noiseless channel with one sample every 125 per sec, is used to transmit digital signals. Find the bit rate (bits per second) that are sent, if CCITT 2.048 Mbps encoding is used.?
a. 500 Kbps
b. 32 Kbps
c. 8 Kbps
d. 64 Kbps.
Answer: d

Q.13. A subdivition of main storage created by operational software is referred to as a:
a. compartment
b. time-shared program
c. divided core
d. partition
Answer: d

Q.14. On a class C network with a subnet mask of 192, how many subnets are available?
a. 254
b. 62
c. 2
d. 14
Answer: c

Q.15. How can you see the address of the DHCP server from which a client received its IP address?
a. By using Advanced Properties of TCP/IP
b. By using IPCONFIG/ALL
c. By using DHCPINFO
d. By pinging DHCP
Answer: b

Q.16. RS-232-G
a. is an interface between two data circuit terminating equipment as examplified by a local and remote modem
b. is an interface standard between Data terminal Equipment and Data Circuit Terminating Equipment
c. specifies only the mechanical characteristics of an interface by providing a 25-pin connector
d. requires only 7 pin out of 25 in order to transmit digital data over public telephone lines
Answer: b

Q.17. Error detection at a data link level is achieved by?
a. bit stuffing
b. cyclic redundancy codes
c. Hamming codes
d. equalization
Answer: b

Q.18. Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Networks (LANs)?
a. Computer
b. Modem
c. Printer
d. Cable
Answer: b

Q.19. The 32-bit internet address 10000000 00001010 00000010 00011110 will be written in dotted decimal notation as
a. 148.20.2.30
b. 164.100.9.61
c. 128.10.2.30
d. 210.20.2.64
Answer: d

Q.20.You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add 60 new subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
a. 255.240.0.0
b. 255.248.0.0
c. 255.252.0.0
d. 255.254.0.0
Answer: d


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Bank PO Exam Paper | Bank Of Baroda Probationary Officer Exam Paper | Previous paper of Bank Of Baroda PO Exam | Reasoning Paper of Bank Examination

  Bank of Baroda Probationary Officer Exam Solved Paper-Reasoning

1. In a certain code JUST is written as #@%$ and LATE is written as ©↑$★. How is TASTE written in that code ?
(A) ★↑%$★
(B) $↑%$★
(C) $↑%★$
(D) $%↑%★
(E) None of these
 Ans: b

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) 25 (B) 64
(C) 189 (D) 225
(E) 121
 Ans: c

3. How many meaningful English words can be formed from the letters ‘AIPR’ using each letter only once ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans:b

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DOMESTIC, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans: c
5. How many such digits are there in the number 7346285, which are as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans: c
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Boy
(B) Girl
(C) Lady
(D) Man
(E) Child
Ans: E

7. If Blue is called Green, Green is called Orange, Orange is called Yellow, Yellow is called Black, Black is called Red and Red is called White. What is the colour of turmeric ?
(A) Orange
(B) Green
(C) White
(D) Black
(E) None of these
Ans: D

8. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the first, the third, the fifth and the eleventh letters of the word INHERITANCE using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X, if no such word can be formed your answer is Y.

(A) E
(B) I
(C) R
(D) X
(E) Y
 Ans: d

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) CE
(B) KI
(C) FD
(D) WU
(E) MK
Ans:(A)

10. Nandini is the only daughter of Madan’s sister Sangita’s brother. How is Nandini related to Madan ?

(A) Daughter
(B) Niece
(C) Cousin
(D) Niece or Daughter
(E) None of these
 Ans:(D)

Directions—(Q. 11–17) These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and  answer the questions.

H T 6 # E 7 $ K I L % 3 P @ 2 A J ↑ R U 4 * V D


11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
 Ans:(B)

12. Which element is fifth to the right of thirteenth from the right end ?
(A) E
(B) ↑
(C) J
(D) K
(E) None of these
 Ans:(C)

13. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
T # 6, 7 K $, L 3 %, ?
(A) @ 2 A
(B) A @ 2
(C) P 2 @
(D) 2 P @
(E) None of these
 Ans:E

14. Which element is third to the left of tenth from the left end ?
(A) K
(B) 3
(C) P
(D) $
(E) None of these
Ans:D)

15. How many such letters are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol but not  immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans:D)

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the  given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) KL$
(B) P23
(C) 2J@
(D) L3I
(E) 4D*
 Ans:E)

17. If all the numbers are removed from the given arrangement which element will be ninth from the left end ?
(A) %
(B) L
(C) P
(D) I
(E) None of these
 Ans:A)

Directions—(Q. 18–25) In each question below are four statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to  take the four given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which  of the given conclusions logically follows from the four statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer :

(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow


18. Statements :
Some Schools are Colleges.
Some Colleges are Universities.
All Universities are Institutes.
All Institutes are Classes.

Conclusions :
I. Some Colleges are Classes.
II. All Universities are Classes.
 Ans:E)

19. Statements :
Some umbrellas are raincoats.
All raincoats are shirts.
No shirt is a blazer.
Some blazers are suits.

Conclusions :
I. Some shirts are umbrellas.
II. Some suits are raincoats.
 Ans:A)

20. Statements :
Some computers are boards.
Some boards are chalks.
All chalks are bulbs.
No bulb is tubelight.

Conclusions :
I. Some bulbs are computers.
II. No chalk is a tubelight.
 Ans:B)

21. Statements :
All doors are floors.
Some floors are tiles.

All tiles are paints.
Some paints are stones.
Conclusions :
I. Some floors are paints
II. Some doors are tiles.
 Ans:A)

22. Statements :
Some leaves are petals.
Some petals are flowers.
All flowers are fruits.
Some fruits are nuts.

Conclusions :

I. Some nuts are flowers.
II. No nut is flower.
 Ans:C)

23. Statements :
All pictures are paintings.
All paintings are photographs.
Some photographs are designs.
Some designs are movies.

Conclusions :
I. Some paintings are designs.
II. Some photographs are movies.
 Ans:D)

24. Statements :
Some tablets are capsules.
All capsules are syrups.
Some syrups are medicines.
All medicines are powders.

Conclusions :
I. Some syrups are powders.
II. Some syrups are tablets.
 Ans:E)

25. Statements :
Some rooms are flats.
All flats are buildings.
Some buildings are bunglows.
All bunglows are apartments.

Conclusions :
I. Some flats are bunglows.
II. Some apartments are buildings.
 Ans:B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.Ashwini, Priya, Sudha, Rani, Meeta, Geeta and Mukta are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Ashwini is third to the left of Mukta and to the immediate right of Rani. Priya is second to the left of Geeta who is not an immediate neighbour of Meeta. 
26. Who is the immediate right of Priya ?
(A) Meeta
(B) Sudha
(C) Mukta
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
 Ans:C)

27. Who is second to the left of Rani ?
(A) Ashwini
(B) Meeta
(C) Priya
(D) Sudha
(E) None of these
 Ans:E)

28. Which of the following pairs of persons has the first person sitting to the immediate left of second person ?
(A) Rani-Meeta
(B) Ashwini-Geeta
(C) Sudha-Priya
(D) Geeta-Sudha
(E) None of these
 Ans:D)

29. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other two ?
(A) Meeta-Ashwini-Geeta
(B) Sudha-Rani-Geeta
(C) Mukta-Priya-Rani
(D) Mukta-Priya-Sudha
(E) None of these
 Ans:B)

30. Which of the following in the correct position of Rani with respect to Mukta ?
(I) Third to the right
(II) Third to the left
(III) Fourth to the left
(IV) Fourth to the right
(A) (I) only
(B) (II) only
(C) Both (I) and (II)
(D) Both (II) and (IV)
(E) Both (I) and (II)
 Ans:E)

Directions—(Q. 31–37) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digits and symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). The letters are to be coded by the digits/symbols as per the scheme and conditions  given below. Serial letter of the combination that correctly represents the letter group is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct your answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these.’

Letters :
T L F A R N I G H K E M D U

Digit/Symbol Code :
3 9 % $ 2 4 * 6 1 5 # @ 7 8


Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as the code for vowel.
(ii) If the first as well as the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as ©.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel their codes are to be swapped.

31. GTAFKU
(A) 63$%58 (B) 63$%56
(C) 83$%58 (D) 83$%56
(E) None of these
 Ans:D)

32. EHMDRA
(A) #1@72$ (B) $L@72#
(C) #1@72# (D) $1@72$
(E) None of these
 Ans:A)

33. ITDELM
(A) *37#9@ (B) @37#9@
(C) *37#9* (D) @37#9*
(E) None of these
 Ans:C)

34. FHKERD
(A) %15#27 (B) ©15#2©
(C) %15#2% (D) 715#2%
(E) None of these
 Ans:.B)

35. AHERFU
(A) $1#2%$ (B) 81#2%8
(C) 81#2%$ (D) $1%3#8
(E) None of these
 Ans:E)

36. NMTARI
(A) 4@3$2* (B) *@3$24
(C) *@3$2* (D) ©@3$2©
(E) None of these
 Ans:B)

37. HTKILF
(A) 135*9% (B) %35*9%
(C) ©35*9© (D) 135*91
(E) None of these
 Ans:C)

Directions—(Q. 38–42) The symbol @, #, $,% and © are used with different meanings as follows—
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A # B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A © B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer :

(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

38. Statements :
F # H, H % K, K $ R, R © M

Conclusions : I. F % R
                           II. F # M
 Ans:A)

39. Statements :
L @ D, D © P, P # V, V % G
Conclusions : I. P % L
                        II. G @ P
 Ans:E)

40. Statements :
E % W, W © Q, Q $ T, T @ H
Conclusions : I. H # W
                        II. H # E
 Ans:D)

41. Statements :
J © T, T @ H, H % I, I $ L
Conclusions : I. L © H
                           II. J © I
 Ans:D)

42. Statements :
R @ Q, Q % P, P © V, V # M
Conclusions : I. R @ P
                           II. R # P
 Ans:D)

Directions—(Q. 43–45) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
‘P × Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’.
‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
‘P + Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’.
‘P – Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.


43. In H + I ÷ L, how is L related to H ?
(A) Brother
(B) Sister
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother or Sister
(E) None of these
 Ans: D)

44. Which of the following represents ‘S is mother of T’ ?
(A) S × M ÷ H – T
(B) S × M + H – T
(C) M × S ÷ H – T
(D) M × S ÷ H + T
(E) None of these.
 Ans:A)

45. In J – F + R × B, how is R related to J ?
(A) Father
(B) Mother
(C) Paternal Aunt
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
 Ans:B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.A, B, C, D, E, F & G are members of a sports club and have liking for different games viz.Carrom, Table Tennis, Badminton, Bridge,Hockey, Football and Lawn Tennis but not necessary in the same order. Each one of them has a liking for different musical instrument viz. Sitar, Guitar, Harmonium, Flute, Tabla, Banjo and Santoor not necessarily in the same order.B likes Carrom and Banjo. E likes to play Bridge but not Harmonium or Tabla. The one who plays Hockey plays Sitar. F plays Guitar but not Table Tennis or Lawn Tennis. A plays Badminton an Flute. The one who plays Lawn Tennis does not play Tabla. C plays Harmonium and G plays Hockey.
46. Who plays Santoor ?
(A) D
(B) A
(C) E
(D) D or E
(E) None of these
 Ans:C)

47. D plays which game ?
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Lawn Tennis
(C) Foot Ball
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
 Ans:A)

48. Which of the following combinations of gameperson musical instrument is definitely correct ?
(A) Badminton – B – Flute
(B) Table Tennis – E – Santoor
(C) Lawn Tennis – D – Tabla
(D) Table Tennis – C – Tabla
(E) None of these
 Ans:E)

49. Who plays football ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) G
(D) F
(E) None of these
 Ans:D)
50. Who plays Table Tennis ?
(A) C
(B) F
(C) D
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
 Ans:C)

Directions—(Q. 51–60) Following are the criteria for selection of officers in an organization.The candidate must—
(i) Have passed HSC examination in first class with at least 60% marks.
(ii) Have passed graduation degree in any discipline with at least 55% marks.
(iii) Have completed a certificate / diploma / degree course in Computer Science.
(iv) Be not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years of age as on 1.7.2008.

If a candidate satisfies all the above mentioned criteria except—
(a) At (ii) above but is a post-graduate, case may be referred to the Executive Director (ED).
(b) At (iii) above but has studied Computer Science as one of subjects of curriculum, case may be referred to the Vice President (VP).

In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.07.2008.You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows. Mark answer :
(A) If the case is to be referred to ED.
(B) If the case is to be referred to VP.
(C) If the candidate is to be selected.
(D) If the information is inadequate to take a decision.
(E) If the candidate is not to be selected.

51. Ashutosh, is a Commerce graduate passed in first class with 67% marks. He had secured 73% marks in HSC. He has studied Computer Science as one of the subjects at HSC. His date of birth is 22.9.1982.
 Ans:(B) Ashutosh satisfies all the mentioned criteria except (iii). Therefore, his case may be referred to the Vice-President.

52. Rajni has passed BMS degree examination in second class with 58% marks and HSC in first class with 65% marks. She has completed a diploma in Computer Science. She has completed 25 years of age in November 2007.
 Ans: (C) Rajni satisfies all the mentioned criteria. Therefore, he is to be selected.

53. Raj Grover has passed HSC exam in first class with 89% marks. Thereafter he did a 6 months certificate course in Computer
Science and presently is pursuing final year of engineering degree examination. His date of birth is 28.12.1980.

 Ans: (E) Raj Grover does not satisfy the criteria (ii) and he is not post-graduate, therefore, he is not to be selected

54. Shamika Gupta is a Science graduate passed in 2006 with 47% at the age of 22 years. She had scored 64% marks in HSC. She has also passed M.Sc. with 58% marks. She has done a certificate course in computers.
 Ans:(A) Shamika Gupta does not satisfy the criteria (ii) but he is post-graduate therefore his case may be reffered to executive director

55. Jasmine is a postgraduate in Computer Science passed in first class with 62% marks. She had scored 81% marks in HSC. Her date  of birth is 17.6.1979.
 Ans:(D) According to given information, the decision cannot take due to inadequate information.

56. 'Shyamala is a B.A. passed in first class with 63% marks. She had passed HSC examination in first class with 69% marks. She has also completed a certificate course in Computer Science with ‘A’ grade. Her date of birth is 23.9.1984.
 Ans:(C) 'Shyamala satisfies all the mentioned criteria therefore, she is to be selected.

57. Anubhav Gokhale, is a B.Sc. with Computer Science passed in second class with 58% marks. He had passed HSC in first class with 76% marks. He has completed 25 years of age in December 2007.
  Ans:  ( C ) Anubhav Gokhale satisfies all the mentioned criteria, therefore, selection should be done

58. Manish Chaudhary passed HSC examination in first class with 83% marks and B.Com. in second class with 57% marks. He has completed a computer certificate course very  recently. His date of birth is 26.4.1982.
 Ans:(C) Manish Chaudhary satisfies all the mentioned criteria, therefore, he is to be selected.

59. Harish Vora passed HSC examination in 2003 with 85% marks and B.Sc. Degree examination in 2006 with 69% marks. He has studied Computer Science as one of the subjects at B.Sc. His date of birth is 17.9.84.
 Ans: (B) Harish Vora does not satisfy the criteria (iii) but he studied computer as a subject. Therefore, his case is to be reffered to VP.

60. Vandana Bhave is B. Com. graduate passed in second class with 56% marks. She had passed HSC in second class with 59% marks. She has also completed a Computer diploma with 56% marks. Her date of birth is 11.5.1982.
 Ans: (E) Vandana Bhave does not satisfy the criteria (i), therefore, she is not to be selected.

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Java Interview Question And Answer | Core Java Interview Question And Answare | Java Interview Question And Answer For Fresher | Set 13

1.What is a package?
 Ans: A package is a collection of classes and interfaces that provides a high-level layer of access protection and name space management.

2.What is a reflection package?
 Ans: java. lang. reflect package has the ability to analyze itself in runtime.

3.What is interface and its use?
 Ans: Interface is similar to a class which may contain method’s signature only but not bodies and it is a formal set of method and constant declarations that must be defined by the class that implements it.
        Interfaces are useful for:
           a) Declaring methods that one or more classes are expected to implement
           b) Capturing similarities between unrelated classes without forcing a class relationship.
           c) Determining an object’s programming interface without revealing the actual body of the class.

4.What is an abstract class?
 Ans: An abstract class is a class designed with implementation gaps for subclasses to fill in and is deliberately incomplete.

5.What is the difference between Integer and int?
 Ans: a) Integer is a class defined in the java. lang package, whereas int is a primitive data type defined in the Java language itself. Java does not automatically convert from one to the other.
         b) Integer can be used as an argument for a method that requires an object, whereas int can be used for calculations.

6.What is a cloneable interface and how many methods does it contain?
 Ans: It is not having any method because it is a TAGGED or MARKER interface.

7.What is the difference between abstract class and interface?
 Ans: a) All the methods declared inside an interface are abstract whereas abstract class must have at least one abstract method and others may be concrete or abstract.
          b) In abstract class, key word abstract must be used for the methods whereas interface we need not use that keyword for the methods.
          c) Abstract class must have subclasses whereas interface can’t have subclasses.

8.What is the Vector class?
 Ans: The Vector class provides the capability to implement a growable array of objects

9.What modifiers may be used with an inner class that is a member of an outer class?
 Ans: A (non-local) inner class may be declared as public, protected, private, static, final, or abstract.

10.If a method is declared as protected, where may the method be accessed?
 Ans: A protected method may only be accessed by classes or interfaces of the same package or by subclasses of the class in which it is declared

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Core Java Interview Question And Answare | Java Interview Question And Answer | Java Interview Question And Answer For Fresher | Set 12

1.What modifiers may be used with top-level class?
 Ans: public, abstract and final can be used for top-level class.

2.What are inner class and anonymous class?
 Ans: Inner class : classes defined in other classes, including those defined in methods are called inner classes. An inner class can have any accessibility including private.
        Anonymous class : Anonymous class is a class defined inside a method without a name and is instantiated and declared in the same place and cannot have explicit constructors.

3.What is the purpose of the wait(), notify(), and notifyAll() methods?
 Ans: The wait(),notify(), and notifyAll() methods are used to provide an efficient way for threads to communicate each other.

4.What are the high-level thread states?
 Ans: The high-level thread states are ready, running, waiting, and dead.

5.What is the difference between yielding and sleeping?
 Ans: When a task invokes its yield() method, it returns to the ready state. When a task invokes its sleep() method, it returns to the waiting state.

6.What happens when a thread cannot acquire a lock on an object?
 Ans: If a thread attempts to execute a synchronized method or synchronized statement and is unable to acquire an object's lock, it enters the waiting state until the lock becomes available.

7.What is the difference between Process and Thread?
 Ans: A process can contain multiple threads. In most multithreading operating systems, a process gets its own memory address space; a thread doesn't. Threads typically share the heap belonging to their parent process. For instance, a JVM runs in a single process in the host O/S. Threads in the JVM share the heap belonging to that process; that's why several threads may access the same object. Typically, even though they share a common heap, threads have their own stack space. This is how one thread's invocation of a method is kept separate from another's. This is all a gross oversimplification, but it's accurate enough at a high level. Lots of details differ between operating systems. Process vs. Thread A program vs. similar to a sequential program an run on its own vs. Cannot run on its own Unit of allocation vs. Unit of execution Have its own memory space vs. Share with others Each process has one or more threads vs. Each thread belongs to one process Expensive, need to context switch vs. Cheap, can use process memory and may not need to context switch More secure. One process cannot corrupt another process vs. Less secure. A thread can write the memory used by another thread

8.Can an inner class declared inside of a method access local variables of this method?
 
Ans: It's possible if these variables are final.

9.What is a native method?
 Ans: A native method is a method that is implemented in a language other than Java.

10.How can you write a loop indefinitely?
 Ans: for(;;)--for loop; while(true)--always true, etc.

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If MDI Child is active restore its default state without opening new child form


Example

Example below shows how to restore MDI Child form to its default state without opening a new Child Form if that MDI Child form is already open.


Child Form Click Event:

     private void formTest_Click(object sender, EventArgs e)
     {
          if (CheckMdiClientDuplicates("Namespace01.FormTest", "FormTest") == true)
          {
              FormTest childForm = new FormTest();
              childForm.MdiParent = this;
              childForm.Show();
          }

     }

  CheckMdiClientDuplicates Function:

 internal bool CheckMdiClientDuplicates(string WndCls,string fName)
 {
      Form[] mdichld = this.MdiChildren;
      foreach (Form selfm in mdichld)
      {
          string str = selfm.Name;
          if (str == fName)
          {
              selfm.WindowState = FormWindowState.Normal;
              return false;
          }
      }
      return true;
 }
---------------------------------------------------------  

Note: ** Namespace01 is the namespace of MDI Parent Form.


** For more information please Contact Us.


 

Previous paper of SBI Clerks Exam | SBI Clerks Exam 2009 General Awareness set 03 | General Awareness


   
         SBI Clerk General Awareness : Solved Paper 2009(8-11-2009)

1. Which of the following is/are the major objectives of the Union Budget 2009-10 presented by Sri Pranab Mukherjee ? Emphasis on/to—

1. Faster and more inclusive growth.
2. Equitable development.
3. Improve the delivery mechanism.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. All 1, 2 and 3
E. None of these
Ans : D.

2. As per the budget 2009-10, the Govt. has made an allocation of Rs. 1542 crores to purchase the shares held by the RBI in which of the following organizations ?
A. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development NABARD.
B. State Bank of India SBI.
C. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India ECGC.
D. Life Insurance Corporation of India
E. All the above
Ans : A.

3. Which of the following apex body and regulators has asked banks to swap customer related information so that the frauds and defaults may be prevented in future ?
A. Bombay Stock Exchange BSE.
B. Indian Bank’s Association IBA.
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India SEBI.
D. Reserve Bank of India RBI.
E. None of these
Ans : D.

4. The SBI has signed an agreement with which of the following agencies to obtain a guarantee cover to its loans to Micro and Small Enterprises ?
A. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
B. Credit Guarantee Trust
C. Small Industrial Development Bank of India
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India
E. None of these
Ans : B.

5. Which of the following is the short form of the name of the Indian Space Shuttle which puts various satellites into orbit ?
A. RISAT
B. PSLV
C. ANUSAT
D. ISRO
E. INTESSAT
Ans : B.

6. ‘Astra’ which was in news in recent in the name of a newly developed—
A. Air to Air Missile
B. Battle Tank
C. Spy Rocket
D. Submarine
E. Air to surface missile
Ans : A.

7. The telecom industry of which of the following countries made a world record by adding about 16 million new subscribers in just one month March 2009. ?
A. China
B. Iran
C. India
D. South Africa
E. None of these
Ans : C.

8. The President of India recently signed three key trade agreements with a country whose Prime Minister is Mr. J. L. R. Zapatero belongs to which of the following countries ?
A. Spain
B. Mexico
C. Italy
D. Greece
E. Ghana
Ans : A.

9. Who amongst the following has taken over as the New Chief Election Commissioner CEC. of India recently ?
A. Mr. Ashwani Kumar
B. Mr. N. Gopalaswami
C. Mr. V. S. Sampath
D. Mr. Naveen Chawla
E. None of these
Ans : D.

10. Which of the following is the Reverse Repo Rate at present ?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 5•5%
E. None of these
Ans : E.

11. Which of the following is true about the exports from India during March 2009 ?
1. Exports went down by 33% percent in terms of US dollars during the period.
2. It was the highest drop in exports in more than a decade.
3. This drop was because Indian Tea has lost its demand in the global market.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 1 and 2
D. All 1, 2 and 3
E. None of these
Ans : D.

12. As per the reports of the National Saving Institute NSI. which of the following has shown an improvement in last few months by registering a 10% growth in it across the country ?
A. Bank Deposits
B. Investments in commodity exchanges
C. Investments in infrastructure bonds
D. Small savings
E. None of these
Ans : D.

13. The President of Maldives was awarded the Anna Lindh Prize-2009 for his efforts in which of the following areas ? Efforts to—
1. Combat climatic changes
2. Bringing democracy in country in a peaceful manner
3. Save his country from financial crisis
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Only 1 and 2
E. All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D.

14. Who amongst the following is the author of the book released recently. “India and Global Financial Crisis : Managing Money and finance” ?
A. Dr. Bimal Jalan
B. Dr. C. Rangarajan
C. Dr. Manmohan Singh
D. Mr. Pranab Mukherjee
E. Dr. Y. V. Reddy
Ans : E.

15. Who amongst the following is the winner of the prestigious ‘Dadasaheb Pahlke Award’ given in April 2009 ?
A. Manoj Kumar
B. Rajesh Khanna
C. Amitabh Bachchan
D. Jaya Bachchan
E. Jitendra
Ans : A.

16. India recently finalized its National Solar Mission. The mission envisages an installed solar energy generation capacity of about—
A. 5000 MW by 2030.
B. 1000000 MW by 2030.
C. 15000 MW by 2030.
D. 20000 MW by 2030.
E. 25000 MW by 2030.
Ans : B.

17. As per the news published in major newspapers / magazines four Central Public Sector Undertakings, NTPC, NHPC, PGCIL and DVC signed an agreement for a joint venture. All these four PSUs are working in which of the following areas/sectors ?
A. Textile Sector
B. Power Sector
C. Coal Sector
D. Transport Sector
E. Telecome Sector
Ans : B.

18. Which of the following countries wanted to come back again as an active member of the Organisation of American States after its expulsion from there several years back ? The summit of the same was organized in April 2009.
A. Cuba
B. Brazil
C. Argentina
D. Turkey
E. None of these
Ans : A.

19. Who amongst the following was the first elected President of the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal ?
A. Mr. Ram Baran Yadav
B. Mr. B.P. Koirala
C. Mr. Madhav Kumar Nepal
D. Mr. Pushpa Kamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’
E. None of these
Ans : A.

20. As per news in major newspapers Sri Lankan Govt. has offered conditional Amnesty to which of the following groups with a view to end internal conflict in the country going on since last several years ?
A. Association of Civilians Trapped in War Area
B. Janmukti Morcha
C. Naxalite Group of Sri Lanka
D. Madhesi Janadhikar Forum
E. LTTE
Ans : E.

21. As per the reports the Indo-Pak Trade reached at about which of the following levels during 2008-09 ? About—
A. Rs. 200 crores
B. Rs. 300 crores
C. Rs. 400 crores
D. Rs. 500 crores
E. Rs. 600 crores
Ans : C.

22. Which of the following States is amongst the top five power selling States in India ?
A. Meghalaya
B. Chhattisgarh
C. Maharashtra
D. Kerala
E. Rajasthan
Ans : B.

23. India and Russia recently signed an agreement so that India can get a supply of Uranium fuel from Russia. Uranium is used in which of the following sectors ?
A. Pharma Sector
B. Transport Sector
C. Agro Industry
D. Telecom Sector
E. Energy Sector
Ans : E.

24. The Govt. of India recently decided to finalize a big defence deal of Rs. 45000 crore for which finally five contenders are shortlisted.
This deal is to purchase—

A. Fighter jets
B. Radar system
C. Spy rockets
D. Battle tanks
E. Warships
Ans : A.

25. Who amongst the following is not a Padma Awards Winner of 2009 given in 2009 ?
A. Dr. G. Madhavan Nair
B. Mr. Sundarlal Bahuguna
C. Mr. Abhinav Bindra
D. Ms. Aruna Sairam
E. Mr. Manoj Kumar
Ans : E.

26. As per the news in all major newspapers, the African National Congress ANC. got an overwhelming victory in the general elections held recently in—
A. Ghana
B. Uganda
C. South Africa
D. Kenya
E. None of these
Ans : C.

27. After a long cold war of several decades Taiwan recently signed an agreement to expand air links and accept main land investment with which of the following countries in its neighbourhood ?
A. India
B. China
C. Malaysia
D. Indonesia
E. Japan
Ans : B.

28. As per the news in major newspapers Iran has agreed to welcome talks with world powers after a deadlock of several months. Which of the following is the major issue over which Iran has a difference with the most of the world powers ? Its—
A. Nuclear Programme
B. Dispute with Iraq on several oil fields
C. Views on subsidy on agro products in the meetings of the WTO
D. Claim to have permanent seat in UN Security Council
E. None of these
Ans : A.

29. Union Govt. provides subsidy on which of the following commodities in India ?
1. Fertilizers
2. Seeds
3. Tractors
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Only 2 and 3
E. None of these
Ans : A.

30. World famous Tennis Star Rafael Nadal is from which of the following countries ?
A. USA
B. Spain
C. Germany
D. Italy
E. France
Ans : B.

31. ‘Azlan Shah Cup’ is associated with the game of—
A. Cricket
B. Hockey
C. Badminton
D. Table Tennis
E. Golf
Ans : B.

32. What is the full form of NFSM an initiative of the National Development Council of India ?
A. New Food Security Mechanism
B. National Food Security Management
C. National Farmer’s Service Manch
D. New Fastest Space Missile
E. None of these
Ans : E.

33. Financial year in Banks is a period between—
A. January to December
B. May to June
C. April to March
D. January to April
E. None of these
Ans : C.

34. The cooperative movement in which of the following fields has achieved a great visible success in India ?
A. Milk production
B. Banking sector
C. Textile sector
D. Cotton production
E. None of these
Ans : A.

35. The Reserve Bank of India does not print currency notes of the denomination of Rs. —
A. 20
B. 50
C. 3000
D. 1000
E. 500
Ans : C.

36. Which of the following is considered as the financial capital of India ?
A. New Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Bangalore
D. Ahmedabad
E. None of these
Ans : E.

37. Olympic Games are Organized after a gap of every—
A. Two years
B. Three years
C. Four years
D. Five years
E. Six months
Ans : C.

38. Which of the following is a very well known name in the field of Banking in India ?
A. Ms. Meira Kumar
B. Ms. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw
C. Mr. Arun Jaitley
D. Dr. D. Subbarao
E. All of above
Ans : E.

39. Which of the following is the currency of Spain ?
A. Dollar
B. Pound
C. Yen
D. Krona
E. None of these
Ans : E.

40. FIFA is an organization working in the field of—
A. Banking
B. Textiles
C. Power Generation
D. Social Service
E. Sports
Ans : E.
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SBI Clerks Exam 2009 Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge Set 02 | Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge | Previous paper of SBI Clerks Exam



         Marketing Aptitude/Computer knowledge : Solved Paper 2009 (8-11-2009)

1. If text was highlighted and ‘Edit’ ‘Copy’ was clicked, what would happen ?
A. Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard
B. Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard
C. Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking
D. Only B. and C.
E. None of these
Ans : A.

2. The blinking point which shows your position in the text is called—
A. Blinker
B. Cursor
C. Causer
D. Pointer
E. None of these
Ans : B.

3. For seeing the output, you use—
A. Monitor
B. Keyboard
C. Mouse
D. Scanner
E. None of these
Ans : A.

4. CDs are of which shape ?
A. Square
B. Rectangular
C. Round
D. Hexagonal
E. None of these
Ans : C.

5. A scanner scans—
A. Pictures
B. Text
C. Both Pictures and Text
D. Neither Pictures nor Text
E. None of these
Ans : C.

6. A directory within in directory is called—
A. Mini Directory
B. Junior Directory
C. Part Directory
D. Sub Directory
E. None of these
Ans : D.

7. For opening and closing of the file in Excel, you can use which bar ?
A. Formatting
B. Standard
C. Title
D. Formatting or Title
E. None of these
Ans : C.

8. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system ?
A. User interface
B. Language translator
C. Platform
D. Screen saver
E. None of these
Ans : A.

9. Computer language used on the Internet is—
A. BASIC
B. COBOL
C. Java
D. Pascal
E. None of these
Ans : C.

10. You click at B to make the text—
A. Italics
B. Underlined
C. Italics and Underlined
D. Bold
E. None of these
Ans : D.

11. Which part is the ‘brain’ of the computer ?
A. CPU
B. Monitor
C. RAM
D. ROM
E. None of these
Ans : A.

12. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is—
A. Memory-only
B. Write-only
C. Read-only
D. Run-only
E. None of these
Ans : C.

13. Help Menu is available at which button ?
A. End
B. Start
C. Turnoff
D. Restart
E. None of these
Ans : B.

14. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
A. My Folder
B. My Documents
C. My Files
D. My Text
E. None of these
Ans : B.

15. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations, and other computers is an.—
A. Supercomputer
B. Minicomputer
C. Laptop
D. Server
E. None of these
Ans : D.

16. A Website’s main page is called its—
A. Home Page
B. Browser Page
C. Search Page
D. Bookmark
E. None of these
Ans : A.

17. Data that is copied from an application is stored in the—
A. Driver
B. Terminal
C. Prompt
D. Clipboard
E. None of these
Ans : D.

18. Changing an existing document is called ……… the document.
A. creating
B. deleting
C. editing
D. adjusting
E. None of these
Ans : C.

19. In a spreadsheet program the ………… contains related worksheets and documents.
A. workbook
B. column
C. cell
D. formula
E. None of these
Ans : A.

20. Which of the following is not an input device ?
A. Keyboard
B. Monitor
C. Joystick
D. Microphone
E. None of these
Ans : B.

21. Marketing is the combined study of—
A. Buyer’s behaviour and consumer tasks
B. Product demand and Product supply
C. Brand building and Publicity
D. Sales force abilities and customer responses
E. All of these
Ans : A.

22. Effective Marketing helps in—
A. Boosting the sales
B. Boosting the purchases
C. Boosting the demand and supply
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans : A.

23. Market size means—
A. Size of the sales teams
B. Size of the company
C. Scope for profit
D. Scope for marketing
E. None of these
Ans : D.

24. Market share means—
A. Share Market
B. Sensex
C. Market changes
D. Market demands
E. Share of business among pears
Ans : E.

25. Direct Marketing means—
A. Face to face marketing
B. Over the counter marketing
C. Door to door marketing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans : D.

26. A ‘Lead’ means—
A. A buyer
B. A seller
C. Employee
D. Employer
E. None of these
Ans : B.

27. DSA means—
A. District Sales Authority
B. Direct Selling Agent
C. Distributor and Sales Agents
D. Distributor and State Agent
E. None of these
Ans : B.

28. A DSA’s main function is—
A. To boost customer contacts
B. To boost emails
C. To boost telemarketing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans : D.

29. A ‘Prospect’ means—
A. Company’s Prospectus
B. Company’s Memorandum of Association
C. A likely buyer
D. A likely seller
E. None of these
Ans : C.

30. To ‘close a call’ means—
A. To clinch the sales
B. To abandon the sales
C. To lose the business
D. To annoy the customer
E. To exit from the sales team
Ans : A.

31. Good selling skill calls for—
A. Patience
B. Perseverance
C. Persuasion
D. Pursuit
E. All of these
Ans : D.

32. Marketing channels means—
A. Delivery time
B. Delivery period
C. Sales outlets
D. Purchase outlets
E. All of these
Ans : C.

33. Value added services means—
A. Additional cost
B. Additional production
C. Additional staff
D. Additional services
E. All of these
Ans : D.

34. A ‘Target Group’ means—
A. Group of salesmen targeting the customers
B. Likely buyers
C. Group of products
D. Group of companies
E. All of these
Ans : B.

35. ‘USP’ in Marketing means—
A. Useful Sales Procedures
B. Useful Selling Propositions
C. Useful Sales Persons
D. Used Sales Plans
E. Unique Selling Propositions
Ans : E.

36. ‘ATM’ stands for—
A. Anywhere Marketing
B. Any Time Marketing
C. Any Time Money
D. Automated Teller Machine
E. Automatic Timely Machine
Ans : D.

37. Market Plan is a—
A. Selling process
B. Year-end-budget
C. Calendar
D. Business document for marketing strategies
E. All of these
Ans : D.

38. Market segmentation means dividing—
A. The market group into homogeneous groups
B. The market process into easy steps
C. The sales teams into small groups
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans : A.

39. ‘HNI’ means—
A. Highly Non-interested Individuals
B. Highly Needy Individuals
C. High Networth Individuals
D. Highly Negative Individuals
E. None of these
Ans : C.

40. Digital Marketing includes. Find the incorrect answer—
A. Web advertisement
B. E-mail canvassing
C. Blogs
D. SMS campaigns
E. Mobile alerts
Ans : C.
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