SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL TIER-1 EXAMINATION 2010 | SSC-CGL Previous year Exam Paper | SSC-CGL Reasoning Paper 2010

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PART-A
                                     GENERAL INTELLIGENCE REASONING
Directions (1-8) : In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.
1. ACEG : SUWY : : BDFH : ?
(1) TVZX
(2) TVXZ
(3) RTZV
(4) RTVZ
Ans:3
 

 




Ans:


3. 5 : 27 : : 9 : ?
(1) 83
(2) 81
(3) 36
(4) 18
Ans:1

4. 6 : 11 : : 11 : ?
(1) 6
(2) 17
(3) 20
(4) 30
Ans:3

5. ABE : 8 : : KLO : ?
(1) 37
(2) 39
(3) 38
4) 36
Ans:3

6. Sty : Pig : : Byre : ?
(1) Eagle
(2) Cow
(3) Tiger
(4) Hen
Ans:2

7. Patrol : security : : Insurance : ?
(1) Money
(2) Policy
(3) Savings
(4) Risk
Ans:4

8. ADBC : EHFG : : ILJK : ?
(1) MOPN
(3) ORPQ
(2) MPNO
(4) MPON
Ans:2

Directions (9-14) : In each of the following questions, select the one which is different from the other three responses.
9.
(1) 25, 36
(2) 144, 169
(3) 100, 121
(4) 9, 64
Ans:4

10.
(1) Heat
(2) Light
(3) Bulb
(4) Electricity
Ans:3

11.
(1) Wave
(2) Current
(3) Tide
(4) Storm
Ans:3

12.
(1) X
(2) Y
(3) H
(4) D
Ans:2

13.
(1) ZKXJ
(2) CMAL
(3) TGRF
(4) FRTK
Ans:4

14.
(1) ABJNM
(2) QRTUZ
(3) IXYOQ
(4) WFGOP
Ans:3

15. Arrange the following words according to the dictionary?
1. Inventory
2. Involuntary
3. Invisible
4. Invariable
5. Investigate
(1) 4,2,5,3,1
(2) 4,5,1,3,2
(3) 2,5,4,1,3
(4) 4,1,5,3,2
Ans:4


16. Find the next two letters in the Given series.
B C E H L ? ?
(1) XY
(2) MN
(3) QW
(4) OP
Ans:3

17. Which one set letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
a _ b _ a _ _n _ bb _ abbn
(1) Abnabb
(2) Bnbban
(3) bnbbna
(4) bannan
Ans:2

18. Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives, which is the most similar to the numbers given in the question.
Given : (6, 30, 90)
(1) 6, 42, 86
(2) 6, 24, 70
(3) 7, 42, 218
(4) 8, 48, 192
Ans:4

19. Which one number is wrong in the given series?
126, 98, 70, 41, 14
(1) 98
(2) 70
(3) 126
(4) 41
Ans:4

20. Arrange the following in the meaningful/logical order:
1. Exhaust 4. Sleep
2. Night 4. Work
3. Day
(1) 1,3,5,2,4
(2) 3,5,1,4,2
(3) 3,5,1,4,2
(4) 3.5.2.1.4
Ans:3

Directions (21-24): In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series
21. 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, ___?
(1) 31
(3) 43
(2) 39
(4) 47
Ans:4

22. AGMSY, CIOUS, EKQWC, ________?
IOUAG, KQWCI
(1) GMSYE
(3) FMSYE
(2) GNSYD
(4) FMYES
Ans:1

23. 975, 864, 753, 642, _______?
(1) 431
(3) 531
(2) 314
(4) 532
Ans:3

24. 8, 24, 12, ___ , 18, 54
(1) 28
(3) 46
(2) 36
(4) 38
Ans:2

25. Ashok’s mother was 3 times as old as Ashok 5years age. After 5 years she will be twice as old as Ashok. How old is Ashok today?
(1) 10 yrs
(2) 15 yrs
(3) 20 yrs
(4) 25 yrs
Ans:2

26. M is the son of P. Q is the grand- daughter of O who is the husband of P. How is M related to O?
(1) Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Mother
(4) Father
Ans:1

27. In a row of boys, Srinath is 7th from the left & Venkat is 12th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd
from the left. How many boys are there in the row?
(1) 19
(2) 31
(3) 33
(4) 34
Ans:3

28. From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:
IMPASSIONABLE
(1) IMPASSABLE
(2) IMPOSSIBLE
(3) IMPASSIVE
(4) IMPASSION
Ans:3

29. Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letter of the given jumbled word. Find out that word.
Given: MUSPOPAPOTIH
(1) METAMORPHIC
(2) PHILANTHROPIST
(3) HIPPOCAMPUS
(4) HIPPOPOTAMUS
Ans:4

30. Which number is wrong in the given series?
1, 9, 25, 50, 81
(1) 1
(2) 25
(3) 50
(4) 81
Ans:3

31. A bus leaves Delhi with half the number of women as men. At Meerut, ten men get down & five women get in. Now there are equal number of men & women. How many passengers boarded the bus initially at Delhi?
(1) 36
(2) 45
(3)15
(4) 30
Ans:2

32. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, what day will it be three days after the day after tomorrow?
(1) Sunday
(2) Monday
(3) Wednesday
(4) Saturday
Ans:1

Directions (33): In the following question, one statement is given followed by tow assumptions I & II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given assumptions, if any, follow from the given statement.
33 Statement : Politicians become rich by the votes of the people.
Assumptions :
I. People vote to make politicians rich.
II. Politicians become rich by their virtue.
(1) Only I is implicit
(2) Only II is Implicit
(3) Both I & II are implicit
(4) Both I & II are not implicit
Ans:4

Directions (34): In the following question, tow statements P & Q are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III & IV. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly know facts. You have to decide which of the given statements.
34. Statements:
P. All men are women.
Q. All women are crazy.
Conclusions:
I. All men are crazy.
II. All the crazy are men
III. Some of the crazy are men
IV. Some of the crazy are women
(1) None of the conclusions follows
(2) All the conclusions follow
(3) Only I, III & IV follow
(4) Only II & III follow
Ans:3

35. If HOSPITAL is written as 32574618 in a certain Code, how would POSTAL be written in that code?
(1) 752618
(2) 725108
(3) 725618
(4) 725861
Ans:2

36. Find the missing number from the given question
173 (24) 526
431 (18) 325
253 ( ? ) 471
(1) 22
(2) 42
(3) 30
(4) 06
Ans:1

37. After interchanging + & ×, 12 & 18,
which one of the following equations become correct?
(1) (90 × 18) + 18 = 60
(2) (18 + 6) × 12 = 2
(3) (72 + 18) × 18 = 72
(4) (12 + 6) × 18 = 36
Ans:4

38. If SPARK is coded as TQBSL, what will be the code for FLAME?
(1) GMBNF
(2) GNBNF
(3) GMCND
(4) GMBMF
Ans:1

39. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations.
If 6 * 5 = 91
   8 * 7 = 169
   10 * 7 = 211
Then 11 * 10 = ?
(1) 331
(2) 993
(3) 676
(4) 845
Ans:1

40. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the east before turning to his right. He went 20 metres before turning to his right
again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 metres from this point. His father was not there. From here he went 100 metres to
his north before meeting his father in a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?
(1) 90m
(2) 100m
(3) 260m
(4) 140m
Ans:2




42. What is te number missing from the third target?
5   9   15
16  29  ?
49  89  147

(1) 45
(2) 48
(3) 51
(4) 54
Ans:2

43. In a classroom, there are 5 rows, & 5 children A, B, C, D & E are seated one behind the other in 5 separate rows as follows:
A is sitting behind C, but in front of B.C is sitting behind E. D is sitting in front of E.The other in which they are sitting
from the first row to the last is
(1) DECAB
(2) BACED
(3) ACBDE
(4) ABEDC
Ans:1

44. Little wooden cubes each with a side of one inch are put together to form a solid cube with a side of three inches. This big cube is broken up into the original little ones, how many cubes will have paint on two sides?
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 0
Ans: 2
45. K is a place which is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from the capital P. R is another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from K. M is another place and that is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from R. T is yet another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from m. In which direction is T located in relation to P?
(1) South-west
(2) North-west
(3) West
(4) North
Ans: 3
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SSC-CGL Previous year Exam Paper | SSC-CGL English Paper 2010

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                                 English Comprehension (Exam Held on 16-5-2010)

Directions—(Q.1–5) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given bold word and indicate your correct response.
1. Jettison
(A) Accept
(B) Reward
(C) Preserve
(D) Consent
Ans : (C)
 
2. Ameliorate
(A) Improve
(B) Depend
(C) Soften
(D) Worsen
Ans : (D)
 
3. Grotesque
(A) Natural
(B) Odd
(C) Whimsical
(D) Sinful
Ans : (A)
 
4. Devious
(A) Straight
(B) Obvious
(C) Simple
(D) Superficial
Ans : (C)
 
5. Evanescent
(A) Imminent
(B) Permanent
(C) Pervasive
(D) Immanent
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given bold word and indicate your correct alternative.
6. Debacle
(A) Decline
(B) Downfall
(C) Discomfiture
(D) Degeneration
Ans : (B)

7. Ostracise
(A) Banish
(B) Belittle
(C) Beguile
(D) Besiege
Ans : (A)

8. Prophylactic
(A) Antagonistic
(B) Toxic
(C) Preventive
(D) Purgative
Ans : (C)

9. Coddle
(A) Huddle
(B) Satisfy
(C) Protect
(D) Cheat
Ans : (C)
10. Flimsy
(A) Funny
(B) Irrational
(C) Weak
(D) Partisan
Ans : (B)
 
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In these questions, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your
answer is (D).
11. To get into the building I’ll disguise as a reporter—
(A) disguise to be
(B) disguise as one
(C) disguise myself
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)

12. He denied that he had not forged my signature—
(A) would not forge
(B) had forged
(C) did not forge
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)
 
13. If I had played well, I would have won the match—
(A) I played well
(B) I play well
(C) I am playing well
(D) No improvement
Ans : (D)
 
14. Since the records are missing, the possibility of paying more than one compensation for the same piece of land cannot be ruled aside—
(A) out
(B) off
(C) away
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)
 
15. A callous system generates nothing but a misanthrope—
(A) develops
(B) induces
(C) produces
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
 
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate the appropriate alternative.
 
16. One who hides away on a ship to obtain a free passage—
(A) Compositor
(B) Stoker
(C) Stowaway
(D) Shipwright
Ans : (C)
 
17. Clues available at a scene—
(A) Circumstantial
(B) Derivative
(C) Inferential
(D) Suggestive
Ans : (A)
 
18. An unexpeced piece of good fortune—
(A) Windfall
(B) Philanthropy
(C) Benevolence
(D) Turnstile
Ans : (A)
 
19. An emolument over and above fixed income or salary—
(A) Honorarium
(B) Sinecure
(C) Perquisite
(D) Prerogative
Ans : (C)
 
20. The animals of a particular region—
(A) Flora
(B) Museum
(C) Zoo
(D) Fauna
Ans : (D)
 
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer.
 
21. (A) Parapharnelia
(B) Parsimonious
(C) Peccadilo
(D) Peadiatrics
Ans : (B)
 
22. (A) Measureable
(B) Manageable
(C) Marriagable
(D) Manoevrable
Ans : (B)
 
23. (A) Tussel
(B) Tunnle
(C) Tumble
(D) Trable
Ans : (C)
 
24. (A) Populus
(B) Pompuous
(C) Prelious
(D) Presumptuous
Ans : (D)
 
25. (A) Impromptue
(B) Illustrious
(C) Illusery
(D) Impetous
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In the following questions, the Ist and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order.
Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate the appropriate alternative.
26. 1. The most vulnerable section of the society are the students.
P. Revolutionary and new fledged ideas have a great appeal to them.
Q. Agitations may be non-violent methods of protest.
R. They cannot resist the charm of persuasion.
S. They are to be taught that without discipline they cannot get proper education.
6. However if these become violent, the antisocial elements get encouraged and they put all proper working
out of gear.
(A) PRSQ
(B) RSQP
(C) SRPQ
(D) RPQS
Ans : (A)

27. 1. Venice is a strange city.
P. There are about 400 odd bridges connecting the islands of Venice.
Q. There are no motor cars, no horses and no buses there.
R. These small islands are close to one another.
S. It is not one island but a hundred islands.
6. This is because Venice has no streets.
(A) SRPQ
(B) PSRQ
(C) RQPS
(D) QSRP
Ans : (D)

28. 1. One of the most terrible battles of the American Civil War was fought in July 1863, at Gettysburg.
P. The chief speech on that occasion was given by Edward Everett, a celebrated orator.
Q. Lincoln was asked to make a few remarks.
R. In November of that year a portion of the battlefield was dedicated as a final restingplace for men of both armies who died there.
S. Everett’s speech lasted 2 hours; Lincoln’s for 2 minutes; it was over almost before the crowd realized that it had begun.
6. But the Gettysburg speech, is now one of the world’s immortal pieces of literature.
(A) SQRP
(B) RPQS
(C) PQRS
(D) QPSR
Ans : (C)

29. 1. The teacher training agency in England hopes to make teaching one of the top three professions.
P. They have also demanded that the campaign should be matched by improved pay scales, work load and morale so as to avoid
recruitment problems with an aim to raise the image of the teaching profession.
Q. A series of advertisements are now being screened showing famous people speaking about teachers they remember and
admire.
R. An amount of $ 100 million has been set aside to combat the shortage of applicants for teacher training.
S. Teacher Unions have welcomed this campaign.
6. It is high time for the Indian Government also to think on similar lines and take steps to lift up the sinking morale of the teaching
profession.
(A) QRPS
(B) RPSQ
(C) RQSP
(D) QPSR
Ans : (C)

30. 1. Some say that failure is like toxic waste.
P. I see failure more as a fertilizer.
Q. Thinking about it pollutes and undermines the attitudes needed for success.
R. The seeds of success must be planted afresh.
S. It can be used to enrich the soil of your mind.
6. Turning failure into a fertilizer is accomplished by using your errors as steps in learning.
(A) SRQP
(B) PQSR
(C) SPQR
(D) QPSR
Ans : (D)
 
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and indicate
your correct answer.

31. The agent had disclosed the secret before it was evening—
(A) The secret was disclosed by the agent before it was evening
(B) The secret had disclosed by the agent before it had been evening
(C) The secret had been disclosed by the agent before it was evening
(D) The secret was disclosed by the agent before it had been evening
Ans : (C)
 
32. Surely the lost child must have been found by now—
(A) Surely must have found the lost child by now
(B) Surely some one must have found the lost child by now
(C) Surely now must have found the lost child
(D) Now must have found the lost child surely
Ans : (B)

33. We serve hot meals till 10.30, guests can order coffee and sandwiches upto 11•30—
(A) Hot meals are serving till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are ordering by guests till 11•30
(B) Hot meals are being served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches are being ordered till 11•30
(C) Hot meals are served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches may be ordered till 11•30
(D) Hot meals will be served till 10.30; coffee and sandwiches will be ordered upto 11•30
Ans : (C)
 
34. Lie facedown; stretch your arms in front—
(A) You are facedown, arms are to be outstretched
(B) You should be lying facedown, with arms outstretched
(C) You should be lying face down; lest arms stretch out
(D) Let face be down; let arms be stretched out
Ans : (B)
 
35. The Greeks expected to win the international trophy—
(A) It was expected that the Greeks would win the international trophy
(B) The international trophy was expected to be won by the Greeks
(C) It was expected that the Greeks will win the international trophy
(D) It was expected by the Greeks that they would win the international trophy
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In the following questions you have a brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correctalternative.Passage:
In May 1966, the World Health Organisation was authorised to initiate a global campaign to eradicate smallpox. The goal was to eradicate the disease in one decade. Because similar projects for malaria and yellow fever had failed, few believed that smallpox
could actually be eradicated but eleven years after the initial organisation of the campaign, no cases were reported in the field.
The strategy was not only to provide mass vaccinations, but also to isolate patients with active smallpox in order to contain the spread of the disease and to break the chain of human transmission. Rewards for reporting smallpox assisted in motivating the
public to aid health workers. One by one, each smallpox victim was sought out, removed from contact with others and treated. At the same time, the entire village where the
victim had lived was vaccinated.
Today smallpox is no longer a threat to humanity. Routine vaccinations have been stopped worldwide.
 
36. Which of the following is the best title for the passage ?
(A) The World Health Organisation
(B) The Eradication of Smallpox
(C) Smallpox Vaccinations
(D) Infectious Diseases
Ans : (B)

37. What was the goal of the campaign against smallpox ?
(A) To decrease the spread of smallpox worldwide
(B) To eliminate smallpox worldwide in ten years
(C) To provide mass vaccinations against smallpox worldwide
(D) To initiate worldwide projects for smallpox, malaria and yellow fever at the same time
Ans : (B)

38. According to the paragraph what was the strategy used to eliminate the spread of small pox ?
(A) Vaccination of the entire village
(B) Treatment of individual victims
(C) Isolation of victims and mass vaccinations
(D) Extensive reporting of outbreaks
Ans : (C)
 
39. Which statement doesn’t refer to smallpox ?
(A) Previous projects had failed
(B) People are no longer vaccinated for it
(C) The World Health Organisation mounted a worldwide campaign to eradicate the disease
(D) It was a serious threat
Ans : (B)
 
40. It can be inferred that—
(A) no new cases of smallpox have been reported this year
(B) malaria and yellow fever have been eliminated
(C) smallpox victims no longer die when they contract the disease
(D) smallpox is not transmitted from one person to another
Ans : (C)
 
Directions—(Q. 41–45) In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to letter (D).
 
41. Judge in him (A) / previaled upon the father (B) / and he sentenced his son to death. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
 
42. Nine tenths (A) / of the pillar (B) / have rotted away. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
 
43. One major reason (A) / for the popularity of television is (B) / that most people like to stay at home. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (D)

44. Our efforts are aimed (A) / to bring about (B) / a reconciliation. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

45. Three conditions critical (A) / for growing plants are soil, temperature, chemical balance or (B) / amount of moisture. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it.
 
46. The court …… cognisance of the criminal’s words.
(A) took
(B) made
(C) gave
(D) allowed
Ans : (A)
 
47. …… wins this civil war there will be little rejoicing at the victory.
(A) Whichever
(B) Whoever
(C) Whatever
(D) Wherever
Ans : (B)
 
48. As he got older his belief in these principles did not ……
(A) wither
(B) shake
(C) waver
(D) dither
Ans : (B)
 
49. Everyone in this world is accountable to God ……… his actions.
(A) about
(B) for
(C) to
(D) over
Ans : (B)
 
50. Your father used to be the principal of this college ……
(A) did he
(B) does he
(C) didn’t he
(D) doesn’t he
Ans : (C)
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SBI PO English Exam Paper 2010 | Bank Examination| Bank PO Exam Paper| Competitive Examination

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                                                                    English
Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printec in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Governments  have traditionally equated economic progress with steel mills and cement factories. While urban centers thrive and city dwellers get rich, hundreds of millions of farmers remain mired in  poverty. However, fear s of food sh ortages,  a rethinking of antipoverty priorities and the crushing recession in 2008 are causing a dramatic shift in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture.
The last time when the world’s farmers felt such love was in the 1970s. At that time, as food prices spiked, there was real concern that the world was facing a crisis in which the planet was simply unable to produce enough grain and meat for an expanding population. Governments across the developing world and international aid organisations plowed investment into agriculture in the early 1970s, while technological breakthroughs, like high-yield strains of important food crops, boosted production. The result was the
Green Revolution and food production exploded.
But the Green Revolution became a victim of its own success. Food prices plunged by some 60% by the late 1980s from their peak in the mid- 1970s. Policymakers and aid workers turned their attention to the poor ’s other pressing needs, such as health care and education. Farming got starved of resources and investment. By 2004, aid directed at agriculture sank to 3.5% and “Agriculture lost its glitter.” Also, as consumers in high-growth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat, so grain once used for  human consumption got diverted to beef up livestock. By early 2008, panicked buying by importing countries and restrictions slapped on grain exports by some big producers helped drive prices upto heights not seen for three decades. Making matters worse, land and resources got reallocated to produce cash crops such as biofuels and the result was that voluminous reserves of grain evaporated. Protests broke out across the emerging world and fierce food riots toppled governments.
This spurred global leaders into action. This made them aware that food security is one of the fundamental issues in the world that has to be dealt with in order to maintain administrative and political stability. This also spurred the U.S. which traditionally provisioned food aid from American grain surpluses to help needy nations, to move towards investing in farm sectors around the globe to boost productivity. This move helped countries become more productive for themselves and be in a better position to feed their own people.
Africa, which missed out on the first Green Revolution due to poor policy and limited resources, also witnessed a ‘change’. Swayed by the success of East Asia, the primary poverty-fighting method favoured by many policymakers in Africa was to get farmers off their farms and into modern jobs in factories and urban centers. But that strategy proved to be high ly insufficien t. In come levels in  the countryside badly trailed those in cities while the FAO estimated that the number of poor going hungry in 2009 reached an all time high at more than one billion.

In India on the other hand, with only 40% of its farmland irrigated, entire economic boom currently un derway is h eld hostage by th e unpredictable mon soon . With  much of In dia’s far min g ar eas suffering from drought this year, the government will have a tough time meeting its economic growth targets. In a report, Goldman Sachs predicted that if this year too receives weak rains, it could cause agriculture to contract by 2% this fiscal year, making the government’s 7% GDP-growth target look “a bit rich”. Another green revolution is the need of the hour and to make it a reality, the global community still has much backbreaking farm work to do.

151. What is the author ’s main objective in writing the passage
(1) Cr iticising developed coun tr ies for  n ot bolstering economic growth in poor nations
(2) Analysing the disadvantages of the Green Revolution
(3) Persuading experts that a strong economy depend s on  i nd us tr ia li za ti on  a nd  n ot agriculture
(4) Making a case for the international society to engineer a second Green Revolution
(5) Rationalising the faulty agriculture policies of emerging countries

152.Which of the following is an adverse impact of the Green Revolution ?
(1) Unchecked crop yields resulted in large tracts of land becoming barren
(2) Withdrawal of fiscal impetus from agriculture to other sectors
(3) Fa r mer s  beg an  soli cit ing  gover n ment subsidies for their produce
(4) Farmers rioted as food prices fell so low that they could not make ends meet
(5) None of these

153.What is the author trying to convey through the phrase “making the government’s 7% GDP growth target look “a bit rich” ?
(1) India is unlikely to achieve the targeted growth rate
(2) Allocation of funds to agriculture has raised India’s chances of having a high GDP
(3) Agricultural growth has artificially inflated India’s GDP and such growth is not real
(4) India is likely to rave one of the highest GDP growth rates
(5) A large portion of India’s GDP is contributed by agriculture

154.Wh ich  of th e followin g factor s was /were responsible for the neglect of the farming sector after the green revolution ?
(A) Steel and cement sectors generated more revenue for the government as compared to agriculture.
(B) Large scale pr otests against  favouring agriculture at the cost of other important sectors such as education and healthcare.
(C) A t ten t ion  of  p oli cy  ma ker s  a n d  aid organizations was diverted from agriculture to other sectors.
(1) None                      
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B) & (C)      
(4) Only (A) 8s (B) 
(5) All (A), (B) & (C)

155.What prompted leaders throughout the world to take action to boost the agriculture sector in 2008?
(1) Coercive tactics by the U.S. which restricted food aid to poor nations
(2) The realization of the link between food security and political stability
(3) Awareness that performance in agriculture is necessary in order to achieve the targeted GDP
(4) Reports that high-growth countries like China and India were boosting their agriculture sectors to capture the international markets
(5) Their desire to influence developing nations to slow down their industrial development.

156.What motivated the U.S. to focus on investing in agriculture across the globe ?
(1) To make developing countries become more reliant on U.S. aid
(2) To ensure grain surpluses so that the U.S. had no need to import food
(3) To make those countries more self sufficient to whom it previously provided food
(4) To establish itself in the market before the high-growth giants such as India and China could establish themselves
(5) None of these
 
157. What impact did the economic recession of 2008 have on agriculture ?
(1) Governments equated economic stability with industrial development and shifted away from agriculture
(2) Lack of implementation of several innovative agriculture programmes owing to shortage of funds
(3) It prompted increased investment and interest in agriculture
(4) The GDP as targeted by India was never achieved because of losses in agriculture
(5) None of these

158. What encouraged African policymakers to focus on urban jobs ?
(1) Misapprehension that it would alleviate poverty as it did in other countries
(2) Rur a l  d evelopmen t  ou tst r i pped  ur ban development in many parts of Africa
(3) Breaking out of protests in the country and the fear that the government would topple
(4) Bl in d  imit ation  of  wes ter n  mod els  of development
(5) None of these
 
159.Which of the followin g had contributed to exorbitant food prices in 2008 ?
(A) Hoarding of food stocks by local wholesalers which inadvertently created a food shortage.
(B) Export of foodgrains was reduced by large producers.
(C) Diverting r esources from cultivation  of foodgrains to that of more profitable crops.
(1) None                      
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B)                 
(4) All (A), (B) & (C) 
(5) Only (B) & (C)

160.Which of the following is true about the state of agriculture in India at present ?
(A) Of all the sectors, agriculture needs the highest allocation of funds.
(B) Contribution of agriculture to India’s GDP this year would depend greatly upon the monsoon rains.
(C) As India is one of the high-growth countries, it has s jrplus food reserves to export to other nations.
(1) Only (A) and (C) 
 (2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B)               
 (4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) None of these

Direction: Choose the word/group of words which is most similar it meaning to the word printed in  bold as used in the passage.
161. STARVED
(1) Deprived            
(2) Disadvantaged
(3) Hungry                   
(4) Fasting
(5) Emaciated

162. SLAPPED
(1) Beaten                   
(2) Imposed
(3) Withdrawn            
(4) Avoided
(5) Persuaded

163. PLOWED
(1) Cultivated            
 (2) Bulldozed
(3) Recovered             
(4) Instilled
(5) Withdrew

Direction: Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as  used in the passage
164. PRESSING
(1) Unpopular             
(2) Undemanding
(3) Unobtrusive          
(4) Unsuitable
(5) Unimportant

165. EVAPORATED
(1) Absorbed              
(2) Accelerated
(3) Grew                    
 (4) Plunged
(5) Mismanaged

Direction: Which of the phrases (1), (2),(3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence ? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of  these’ as the answer.

166.Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate States, a recent report
(1) proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property
(2) indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy
(3) suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change in the past
(4) recommended dividing large States into smaller ones to improve governance
(5) None of these

167. Over look in g  th e fa ct  t h a t  wa ter  scar ci ty intensifies during summer,
(1) the government issued guidelines to all builder s to limit  th eir con sumption  to acceptable limits
(2) provision for rainwater harvesting has been
made to aid irrigation in drought prone areas (3) the water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year
(4) man y residen tial areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities of water
(5) None of these

168.He has lost most of his life’s earning in the stock market but
(1) He  s t ill  s eems  t o be  l ead i ng  h is  l ife luxuriously and extravagantly
(2) he could n ot save enough  to r epay h is enormous debts
(3) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution
(4) experts  have been  suggestin g to avoid investments in stock market because of its unpredictable nature
(5) None of these

169.Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal,
(1) p olit ical  r efor m s  a r e  al s o  n egl ected preventing women from entering legislatures and positions of power
(2) the problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it
(3) their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections of the society
(4) it is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a long term
(5) None of these

170. ______or else they would not keep electing him year after year.
(1) The party leader gave a strong message to the mayor for improving his political style
(2) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post immed iately
(3) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a complaint against him
(4) The residents must really be impressed with the political style of their mayor
(5) None of these

Direction: Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that  best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

171. Drawing attention to the pitfalls of _____ solely on Uranium as a fuel for nuclear reactors, Indian scientists warned that Uranium will not last for long and thus research on Thorium as its_____ must be revived.
(1) using,                            substitute
(2) believing,                      replacement
(3) depending,                    reserve
(4) reckoning,                     option
(5) relying,                         alternative

172. In  an effor t to pr ovide ______ for  higher education to all, most of the universities have been providing education without adequate in fr astr uctur e, th us  ch urn in g out  __ ____ graduates every year.
(1) chances,                        fresh
(2) platform,                       capable
(3) opportunities,               unemployable
(4) prospects,                     eligible
(5) policy,                           incompetent

173.The move to allow dumping of mercury _______ an outcry from residents of the area who _____ that high levels of mercury will affect their health and destroy ecologically sensitive forest area
(1) resulted,                        insist
(2) provoked,                     fear
(3) incited,                          determined
(4) activated,                      accept
(5) angered,                        believe

174.  ______has been taken against some wholesale drug dealers for dealing in surgical items without a valid license and maintaining a stock of _____drugs.
(1) Note,                             overwhelming
(2) Step,                             impressive
(3) Execution,                    outdated
(4) Action,                          expired
(5) Lawsuit,                        invalid

175. Even as the_____ else where in the world are struggling to come out of recession, Indian consumers are splurging on consumer goods and to --------this growth, companies are investing heavily in various sectors.
(1) economies,                   meet
(2)  countries,                      inhibit
(3)  governments,                measure
(4)  nations,                         inflict
(5)  companies,                   counter

Direction:Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which  follow 

(A) While these disadvantages of bio fuels are serious, they are the only alternate energy source of the future and the sooner we find solutions to these problems the faster we will be able to solve the problems wo are now facing with gasoline.

(B) This fuel can also help to stimulate jobs locally since they are also much safer to handle thaw” gasoline and can thus have the potential to turnaround a global economy.

(C) These include dependence on fossil fuels for the machinery required to produce biofuel which ends up polluting as much as the burning of fossil fuels on roads and exorbitant cost of biofuels which makes it very difficult for the common man to switch to this option.

(D) This turnaround can potentially help to bring world peace and end the need to depend on foreign countries for energy requirements.

(E) Biofuels are made from plant sources and since these sources are available in abundance and can be reproduced on a massive scale they form an energy source that is potentially unlimited.

(F) However everything is not as green with the biofuels as it seems as there are numerous d i s a d va n ta g es  i n vol ved  wh i ch  at  tim es overshadow their positive impact.

176. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(1) A             
(2) B                 
(3) C  
(4) E              
(5) F 
177. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(1) A             
(2) B                 
(3) C  
(4) D              
(5) E  

178. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(1) A 
(2) B 
(3) C
(4) D 
(5) E


179. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(1) A 
(2) C 
(3) D
(4) E 
(5) F


180. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(1) A     
 (2) B      
(3) D 
(4) E      
(5) F     

Direction: Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark
 (5) as the answer.

181. Soon after the Tsunami had killed thousands of people alon g the coasts of southern  In dia, parliament psssas a bill that proposed to set up an institutional mechanism to respond promptly to natural disasters

(1) passed a bill that proposed 
(2) passes a bill with purpose 
(3) pass a bill proposing
(4) passed a bill which propose
(5) No correction required

182. Denial of wages forced scientists and teachers at the agriculture universities throughout the coun tr y to go on strike,  crippling  cr ucial research that could help the state of agriculture in the country.
(1) from going on strike         
(2) which went on strike 
(3) on going for a strike 
(4) for going to strike
(5) No correction required

183. In an attempt to boost their profits many edible oil producing companies have been engaging themselves in propaganda against commonly used oils and. promoting exotic and expensive varieties of oils as more healthier options.
(1) as most healthiest options
(2) as less healthy option
(3) as a healthier option
(4) as much healthiest option
(5) No correction required

184. Thanks to numerous government initiatives, rural masses which was earlier unaware of the luxur ies  of ur ban  ways of livin g ar e n ow connected to the same lifestyle.
(1) who was earlier unaware
(2) which were earlier aware
(3) who were earlier conversant 
(4) who were earlier unaware (5) No correction required

185. Over the last few months, while most industries are busy in restructuring operations, cutting costs an d firing, the Indian pharmaceutical  and healthcare industry was adding manpower and giving salary hikes.
(1) as many industries are
(2) while most industries were
(3) while many industries is
(4) where many industries were
(5) No correction required

Direction: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which ]’as been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case

There is a considerable amount of research about the factors that make a company innovate. So is it p oss i bl e  to  cr ea te  a n  en vi r on m en t  ( 186  )  to innovation? This is a particularly pertinent (187) for India today. Massive problems in health, education etc. (188) be solved using a conventional approach but (189) creative and innovative solutions that can ensure radical change and (190). There are several factors in India’s (191). Few countries have the rich diversity that India or its large, young population ( 192) .  Wh il e  t h ese  ( 193 )  i n n ovat ion  p oli cy interventions certain additional steps are also required. These include (194) investment in research and development by (195) the government and the private sector, easy transfer of technology from the academic world etc. To fulfill its promise of beng prosperous and to be at the forefron India must be innovative.

186. 1.stimuli
          2.conducive
          3.incentive
          4.facilitated
          5.impetus

187. (1)    objective   
(2)    controversy
(3)    doubt   
(4)    question
(5)    inference

188. (1) cannot                  
 (2) possibly
(3) should                   
(4) never
(5) must

189. (1) necessary             
(2) apply
(3) need                      
(4) consider
(5) requires

190. (1) quantity                 
(2) advantages
(3) increase                 
(4) chaos
(5) growth
 
191. (1) challenges            
 (2) praises
(3) favour                    
(4) leverage
(5) esteem

192. (1) blessed                  
(2) enjoys
(3) endows                  
(4) prevails
(5) occurs

193. (1) aid .                       
(2) jeopardise
(3) promotes               
(4) endure
(5) cater

194. (1) acute                   
  (2) utilising
(3) restricting              
(4) inspiring
(5) increased

195. (1) both                       
(2) besides
(3) combining           
 (4) participating
 (5)  a ;o

Direction: In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet.

196.(A) consent   
(B)    nascent
(C) emerging   
(D)    insecure
(1) A–C   
(2)B–D
(3) B–C   
(4)A–D
(5) A–B       

197.(A) elated   
(B)eccentric
(C) explicit
(D)abnormal
(1) A–B   
(2)B–D
(3) A–C   
(4)A–D
(5) D–C   

199.(A) purposefully       
(B) inaccurately
(C) inadvertently     
 (D) unchangeably
(1) A–C                      
(2) A–B
(3) B–C                      
(4) B–D
(5) A–D

200.(A) germane              
(B) generate
(C) reliable               
 (D) irrelevant
(1) B–D                      
(2) B–C
(3) A–B                    
(4) C–D
(5) A–D

Ans:
151. (4)    152. (4)    153. (1)    154. (2)    155. (2)    156. (3)    157. (3)    158. (1)    159. (5)    160. (3)
161. (1)    162. (2)    163. (2)    164. (2)    165. (3)    166. (2)    167. (4)    168. (5)    169. (4)    170. (4)
171. (5)    172. (2)    173. (2)    174. (4)    175. (1)    176. (3)    177. (4)    178. (5)    179. (1)    180. (2)
181. (1)    182. (5)    183. (5)    184. (2)    185. (2)    186. (2)    187. (4)    188. (1)    189. (5)    190. (5)
191. (3)    192. (3)    193. (3)    194. (5)    195. (1)    196. (3)    197. (2)    198. (5)    199.(1)      200.(5)                      

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SBI PO Data Analysis and Iterpretation Exam Paper 2010 | Bank Po Exam Paper

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                                                    DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION

Direction: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow

Number (n) of candidates (in lakhs) appearing for an entrance examination From six different states and the percentage (p) of candidates clearing the same over the years



51.What is the respective ratio of total number of candidates clearing the entrance exam from State B in the year 2004 to those clearing the entrance exam from State C in the same year
(1) 221: 148 
(2) 218: 143
(3) 148: 221 (4) 143: 218
(5) None of these
 
52. In which year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam from State D ?
(1) 2008 
(2) 2006
(3) 2009 
(4) 2007
(5) None of these
 
53.What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam from State A in the year 2007?
(1) 186820 
(2) .11682
(3) 1868200 
(4) 1.16820
(5) None of these
 
54.What is the total numberof candidates clearing the entrance exam from States E and F together in the year 2006 ?
(1) 16160 
(2) 110660
(3) 1.1066 
(4) 1106600
(5) None of these
 
55.What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance exam from State D in the years 2007, 2008 and 2009 together ?










Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow
An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green and 3 yellow marbles.
 
56. If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue ?
(1)4/15
(2)69/91
(3)11/15
(4)22/91
(5) None of these

57. If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that both are red ?
(1)1/6
(2)1/3
(3)2/15
(4)2/5
(5) None of these
 
58. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that two are blue and one is yellow?
(1)3/91
(2)1/5
(3)18/455
(4)7/15
(5) None of these
 
59. If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that one is green, two are blue and one is red ?
(1)24/455
(2)13/35
(3)11/15
(4)7/91
(5) None of these

60. If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are green or both are yellow ?
(1)5/91
(2)1/35
(3)1/3
(4)4/105
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the questions that follow

Breakup of number of employees working in different departments of an organisation, the, number of males and the number of employees who recently got promoted in each department break-up of employees
working in different departments total number of employees = 3,600 Employees working in different departments:




Break-up of number of males in each department
Total number of males in the organisation
= 2,040
Break-up of number of males working in each department


 Break-up of number of employees who recently got promoted in each department Total number of employees who got promoted = 1,200
Number of employees who recently got promoted from each department




61. If half of the number of employees who got promoted from the IT department were males,what was the approximate percentage of males who got promoted from the IT department ?
(1) 61 
(2) 29 
(3) 54
(4) 42 
(5) 38

62. What is the total number of females working in the Production and Marketing departments together ?
(1) 468 
(2) 812 
(3) 582
(4) 972 
(5) None of these
 
63. How many females work in the Accounts department ?
(1) 618 
(2) 592 
(3) 566
(4) 624 
(5) None of these
 
64. The total number of employees who got promoted from all the departments together was what percent of the total number of employees working in all the departments together ?
(Rounded off to the nearest integer)
(1) 56 
(2) 21 
(3) 45
(4) 33 
(5) 51
 
65. The number of employees who got promoted from the HR department was what percent of the total number of employees working in that department ? (rounded off to two digits after
decimal)
(1) 36.18 
(2) 30.56 
(3) 47.22
(4) 28.16 
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the graph carefully to answer the questions that follow

 Percent rise in profit of two companies over the years


66. If the profit earned by Company L in the year 2005 was Rs. 1.84 lakhs, what was the profit earned by the company in the year 2006 ?
(1) Rs. 2.12 lakhs 
(2) Rs. 2.3 lakhs
(3) Rs. 2.04 lakhs
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

67. If the profit earned by Company M in the year 2008 was Rs. 3.63 lakhs, what was he amount of profit earned by it in the year 2006 ?
(1) Rs. 2.16 lakhs
 (2) Rs.1.98 lakhs
(3) Rs. 2.42 lakhs
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

68.What is the average percent rise in profit of Company L over all the years together ?









69.Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the above graph ?
(1) Company M made the highest profit in the year 2009
(2) Company L made least profit in the year 2005
(3) The respective ratio between the profits earned by Company L and M In the year 2006 was 6:5
(4) Company L made the highest profit in the year 2008
(5) All are true

70.What is the percentage increase in percent rise in profit of Company M in the year 2009 from the previour year ?
(1) 25 
(2) 15 
(3) 50
(4) 75 
(5) None of these

Direction: Study th a information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

A school consisting of a total of 1560 students has boys and girls in the ratio of 7:5 respectively. All the students are enrolled in different types of hobby classes, viz: Singing, Dancing and Painting. One-fifth of the boys are enrolled in only Dancing classes. Twenty percent of the girls are enrolled in only Painting classes. Ten percent of the boys are enrolled in only Singing classes. Twenty four percent of the girls are enrolled in both Singing and Dancing classes together. The number of girls enrolled in only Singing classes is two hundred percent of the boys enrolled in the same. One-thirteenth of the boys are enrolled in all the three classes together. The respective ratio of boys enrolled in Dancing and Painting classes together to the girls enrolled in the same is 2 :1 respectively. Ten percent of the girls are enrolled in only Dancing classes whereas eight percent of the girls are enrolled in both Dancing and Painting classes together. The remaining girls are enrolled in all the three classes together. The number of boys enrolled in Singing and Dancing classes together is fifty percent of the number of girls enrolled in the same. The remaining boys are enrolled in only Painting
classes.

71.What is the total number of boys who are enrolled in Dancing ?
(1) 318 
(2) 364
(3) 292 
(4) 434
(5) None of these
 
72. Total number of girls enrolled in Singing is approximately what percent of the total number of students in the school ?
(1) 37
 (2) 19
(3) 32 
(4) 14
(5) 26
 
73.What is the total number of students enrolled in all the three classes together ?
(1) 135 
(2) 164
(3) 187 
(4) 142
(5) None of these
 
74. Number of girls enrolled in only Dancing classes is what percent of the boys enrolled in the same?
(rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 38.67 
(2) 35.71
(3) 41.83 
(4) 28.62
(5) None of these
 
75.What is the respective ratio of the number of girls enrolled in only Painting classes to the number of boys enrolled in the same ?
(1) 77 : 26 
(2) 21 : 73
(3) 26 : 77 
(4) 73 : 21
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow.




76.What is the respective ratio between the profit earned by shopkeeper U in the months February-2010 and March - 2010 together to that earned by shopkeeper Q in the same months ?
(1) 637: 512 
(2) 621 : 508
(3) 512: 637 
(4) 508: 621
(5) None of these

77.What is the percent increase in profit of shopkeeper S in the month of December - 2009 over the previous month ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) 3.15 
(2) 2.67
(3) 2.18
 (4) 3.33
(5) None of these
 
78.Which shopkeeper’s profit kept increasing continuously over the given months ?
(1) R 
(2) Q 
(3) T
(4) U (5) None of these

79.What is the difference in profit earned by shopkeeper T in January - 2010 from the previous month ?
(1) Rs. 640/- 
(2) Rs. 420/-
(3) Rs. 380/- 
(4) Rs. 760/-
(5) None of these 

80.What was the average profit earned by shopkeeper R in the months of October – 2009 and November – 2009 together ?
(1) 5405 
(2) 5040 
(3) 4825
(4) 4950 
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the given graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Number of days taken by three carpenters to finish making one piece each of four different items of furniture




81. If Carpenter X and Carpenter Y were to make a chair together how many days would they take?
(1) 1 day 
(2) 4 days 
(3) 3 days
(4) 2 days 
(5) None of these

82. If Carpenters X, Y and Z were to make a table together how many days would they take ?
(1) 4 days 
(2) 3 days 
(3) 1 day
(4) 2 days 
(5) None of these

83.What is the total number of days that Carpenter Z will take to make one piece each of all the four items together ?







84. The radius of a circular field is equal to the side of a square field whose perimeter is 784 feet.
What is the area of the circular field ?
(1) 107914 Sq.ft
(2) 120736 Sq.ft.
(3) 107362 Sq.ft.
(4) 127306 Sq.ft.
(5) None of these

85. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘STRESS’ be arranged
(1) 360 
(2) 240
(3) 720
(4) 120
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the given table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

 Number of people staying in five different localities and the percentage breakup of men, women and children in them




86. Total number of people staying in locality J forms approximately what percent of the total number of people staying in locality F ?
(1) 81 
(2) 72 
(3) 78
(4) 93
 (5) 87

87.What is the total number of children staying in localities H and I together ?
(1) 1287 
(2) 1278 
(3) 1827
(4) 1728 
(5) None of these
 
88. The number of women staying in which locality is the highest ?
(1) H 
(2) J 
(3) F
(4) G 
(5) None of these
 
89.What is the total number of men and children staying in locality I together
(1) 4115 
(2) 4551 
(3) 4515
(4) 4155 
(5) None of these
 
90.What is the respective ratio of number of men staying in locality F to the number of men staying in locality H ?
(1) 517: 416 
(2) 403: 522
(3) 416: 517 
(4) 522: 403
(5) None of these

91. The compound interest earned by Suresh on a certain amount at the end of two years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a was Rs. 1,414.4. What was the totalamount that Suresh got back at the end of two years in the form of principal plus interest earned?
(1) Rs. 9,414.4 
(2) Rs. 9,914.4
(3) Rs. 9,014.4 
(4) Rs. 8,914.4
(5) None of these

92. The respective ratio of the present ages of a mother and daughter is 7 : 1. Four years ago the respective ratio of their ages was 19:1. What will be the mother’s age four years from now ?
(1) 42 years 
(2) 38 years
(3) 46 years 
(4) 36 years
(5) None of these
 
93. Three friends J, K and Ljog around a circular stadium and complete one round in 12, 18 and 20 seconds respectively. In how many minutes will all the three meet again at the starting point
(1) 5 
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 3 
(5) None of these
 
94. 4 men can complete a piece of work in 2 days. 4 women can complete the same piece of work in 4 days whereas 5 children can complete the same piece of work in 4 days. If, 2 men, 4 women anW 10 children work together, in how many days can the work be completed ?
(1) 1 day 
(2) 3 days 
(3) 2 days
(4) 4 days 
(5) None of these

95. The speed of a boat when travelling downstream is 32 Kms. / Hr. , whereas when travelling upstream it is 28 kms/hr. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) 27 Kms./Hr. 
(2) 29 Kms./ Hr.
(3) 31 Kms./ Hr.
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

Direction: Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below

 Number of Candidates appeared in aCompetitiveExamination from five centres over
the years NUMBER




 96. In which of the following years was the difference in number of candidates appeared
from Mumbai over the previous year the minimum ?
(1) 2004 
(2) 2006 
(3) 2007
(4) 2002 
(5) None of these

97. In which of the following years was the number of candidates qualified from Chennai, the maximum among the given years ?
(1) 2007 
(2) 2006 
(3) 2005
(4) 2003 
(5) None of these
 
98. Approximately what was the total number of candidates qualified from Delhi in 2002 and
2006 together ?
(1) 27250 
(2) 25230 
(3) 30150
(4) 28150 
(5) 26250

99. Approximately how many candidates appearing from Kolkata in 2004 qualified in the competitive examination ?
(1) 13230 
(2) 13540 
(3) 15130
(4) 15400 
(5) 19240

100.Approximately what was the difference between the number of candidates qualified from Hyderabad in 2001 and 2002 ?
(1) 1680 
(2) 2440 
(3) 1450
(4) 2060 
(5) 1860

Ans:

51. (1)    52. (3)    53. (5)    54. (2)    55. (4)    56. (2)    57. (5)    58. (3)    59. (1)    60. (5)
61. (5)    62. (3)    63. (1)    64. (4)    65. (2)    66. (2)    67. (3)    68. (5)    69. (1)    70. (4)
71. (4)    72. (5)    73. (1)    74. (1)    75. (3)    76. (2)    77. (4)    78. (5)    79. (3)    80. (1)
81. (5)    82. (3)    83. (1)    84. (2)    85. (5)    86. (5)    87. (2)    88. (4)    89. (3)    90. (1)
91. (2)    92. (3)    93. (4)    94. (1)    95. (5)    96. (5)    97. (1)    98. (1)    99. (2)    100. (5)






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